Biological Science Reviewer 2

STUDY OF LIFE
Unit A — Introduction
1. The fact that no two members of the same species are absolutely identical is an example of
A. diversity
B. homeostasis.
C. change through time.
D. structural adaptations.

2. Which of the following is the BEST example of the biological principle of structural adaptations?

A. Pigs have litters.
B. Snakes eat frogs.
C. There are many breeds of dogs.
D. Cacti needles are modified branches.

3. The fact that some flowers close up at night and open up during the day is an example of

A. continuity.
B. interactions.
C. homeostasis.
D. structural adaptations.

4. A litter of puppies being born to a dog is an example of

A. continuity.
B. interactions.
C. changes through time.
D. structural adaptations.

5. The relationship between a carnivore (wolf) and a herbivore (rabbit) is an example of

A. unity.
B. interactions.
C. changes through time.
D. structural adaptations.

6. Which levels of biological organization includes all the others listed?

A. Biome.
B. Ecosystem.
C. Population.
D. Community.

7. What is a group of tissues with a unifying function called?

A. Cell.
B. Organ.
C. Organism.
D. Organ system.

8. Biology is the study of

A. life.
B. plants.
C. animals.
D. organisms.

9. Which of the following levels of study in biology is MORE GENERAL than “community”?

A. Species.
B. Ecosystem.
C. Population.
D. Organ system.

10. Which of the following sequences correctly specifies the study of insects?

A. Biology – botany – entomology.
B. Zoology – biology – insectology.
C. Biology – zoology – entomology.
D. Biology – zoology – microbiology.

Unit B — Diversity and Classification

1. Linnaeus based his classification of plants on

A. usefulness to man.
B. evolutionary changes.
C. environmental factors.
D. structural characteristics.

The next five questions refer to the following name for a vine maple tree:Acer circinatum

2. The name as it is written is

A. correct.
B. incorrect because it should be underlined.
C. incorrect because both words should be capitalized.
D. incorrect because neither word should be capitalized.

3. The biological name for a vine maple tree is

A. Acer.
B. circinatum.
C. Acer circinatum.
D. none of the above.

4. The genus name for a vine maple tree is

A. Acer.
B. circinatum.
C. Acer circinatum.
D. none of the above.

5. The species name for a vine maple tree is

A. Acer.
B. circinatum.
C. Acer circinatum.
D. none of the above.

6. The use of two-word names like this is called

A. taxonomy.
B. dichotomy.
C. dinomial taxomony.
D. binomial nomenclature.

7. Biologists who classify organisms are called

A. organists.
B. taxonomists.
C. taxidermists.
D. taxorganists.

8. All taxa larger than "species" are

A. arbitrary.
B. written in italics.
C. biologically useless.
D. artificial, defined by man.

9. Horses and zebras are not considered to be members of the same species because they

A. do not interbreed.
B. eat different foods.
C. are of different sizes.
D. have different markings.

10. Members of the same species

A. are in the same genus.
B. live in the same location.
C. interact sexually with each other.
D. are all the same color and shape.

11. The most important factor in deciding whether or not two populations of birds living on two different islands belong to the same species is their

A. physical similarity.
B. embryological similarity.
C. environmental requirement.
D. mutual reproductive capability.

12. The taxon most clearly defined by natural biological barriers is the

A. class.
B. genus.
C. phylum.
D. species.

13. Which kingdom includes bacteria?

A. Fungi.
B. Monera.
C. Plantae.
D. Protista.

14. The third smallest taxon is the

A. order.
B. class.
C. family.
D. phylum.

15. The taxon that includes the others listed is the

A. class.
B. order.
C. genus.
D. phylum.

16. Which sequence of taxa is in proper order?
A. Species, genus, family, class, order, phylum, kingdom.
B. Genus, class, order, kingdom, phylum, species, family.
C. Class, genus, family, species, order, phylum, kingdom.
D. Species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom.

17. Unlike a plant, a plant-like protist

A. is unicellular.
B. has a nucleus.
C. uses mitochondria.
D. contains chloroplasts.

18. A unicellular organism with membrane-bound organelles is generally considered to be a

A. plant-like protist.
B. animal-like protist.
C. fungus-like protist.
D. protist of some kind.

19. How many kingdoms of organisms will be studied in Biology 11?

A. Three.
B. Four.
C. Five.
D. Six.

20. Organisms are classified into kingdoms primarily by their

A. habitat.
B. structures.
C. size and coloration.
D. reproductive behavior.

Unit C — Adaptation and Evolution

1. Meiosis results in the production of

A. two diploid daughter cells.
B. four diploid daughter cells.
C. two haploid daughter cells.
D. four haploid daughter cells.

2. Which pair of bases does NOT represent a complementary base pair?

A. thymine — adenine.
B. adenine — guanine.
C. guanine — cytosine.
D. cytosine — guanine.

3. The process of replication ensures that daughter cells will have exact copies of

A. chromosomes without any mutations.
B. all the genetic information for the organism.
C. suitable segments of DNA required for cell survival.
D. the genetic information to be used by those particular cells.

4. When during the cell cycle does replication occur?

A. Just before prophase.
B. S period of interphase.
C. G1 period of interphase.
D. G2 period of interphase.

5. The theory of natural selection was developed by

A. Darwin.
B. Mendel.
C. Lamarck.
D. Linnaeus.

6. The evolution of a species could be MOST ACCURATELY documented by the

A. observation of a set of mutations.
B. change in the size of a physical feature.
C. change in the frequency of alleles in the gene pool.
D. occurrence of genotype that doesn’t change, though the corresponding phenotype may.

7. Which of the following is TRUE of homologous structures?

A. They have the same types of tissues and the same functions.
B. They have different types of tissues and may have different functions.
C. They have different types of tissues but may have the same functions.
D. They have the same types of tissues, but may have different functions.

8. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to form a fossil?

A. Skin.
B. Teeth.
C. Shells.
D. Bones.

9. The fact that embryos of different animals appear similar during various stages of their development suggests that they are

A. evolving.
B. mutating.
C. genetically related.
D. analogous to one another.

10. Industrial melanism is an example of

A. artificial selection.
B. disruptive selection.
C. stabilizing selection.
D. accidental selection.

11. Which is NOT an example of artificial selection?

A. Bird watching.
B. Breeding race horses.
C. Raising purebred dogs.
D. Protecting endangered species.

12. The phenomenon of the accumulation of toxins in the tissues of organisms is known as

A. extinction
B. natural selection.
C. disruptive selection.
D. biological magnification.

13. Variations of a specific gene are known as

A. alleles.
B. mutations.
C. genotypes.
D. phenotypes.

14. A bimodal distribution of phenotypes in any given population could naturally appear through

A. artificial selection.
B. disruptive selection.
C. stabilizing selection.
D. directional selection.

15. Which of the following is NOT a necessary component of the process of natural selection?

A. extinction.
B. selective pressure.
C. phenotypic variation.
D. reproductive success.

16. Evolution due to genetic drift is MOST LIKELY to occur in a

A. large population due to selective pressures.
B. small population due to selective pressures.
C. large population without the influence of selective pressures.
D. small population without the influence of selective pressures.

17. A rare allele may become common in a small population in a relatively short period of time due to

A. genetic drift.
B. adaptive radiation.
C. divergent evolution.
D. convergent evolution.

18. Individuals without the specializations required to survive in a changing environment

A. die.
B. adapt.
C. evolve.
D. mutate.

19. The idea that fossils are direct evidence of previously living organisms is consistent with

A. Darwin’s theory of evolution.
B. Lamarck’s theory of evolution.
C. Both of these theories of evolution.
D. Neither of these theories of evolution.

20. The ability of an organism to pass on its genes to its offspring is part of the definition of

A. fitness.
B. radiation.
C. evolution.
D. adaptation.

Unit D — Viruses

1. If a person previously had cow pox and was infected with small pox, then the

A. effect would be severe.
B. person would most certainly die.
C. effect would be minimal if any even occurred.
D. person could become sick with any kind of pox, including chicken pox.

2. During the vaccination against small pox, what did Jenner inject into people?

A. Fluid from a cowpox blister.
B. Blood from an infected cow.
C. Pus from an infected person.
D. Antibiotics he developed against small pox.

3. Which of the following scientists was the first to see the tobacco mosaic virus?

A. Miller.
B. Meyer.
C. Beijerinick.
D. Iwanowski.

4. Which of the following scientists concluded that tobacco mosaic disease was caused by organisms capable of reproduction?

A. Miller.
B. Meyer.
C. Beijerinick.
D. Iwanowski.

5. Which of the following scientists demonstrated that tobacco mosaic disease could be transferred from an infected plant to a healthy plant in the juice extracted from the infected plant?

A. Miller.
B. Meyer.
C. Beijerinick.
D. Iwanowski.

6. Which of the following scientists conducted experiments that led to his belief that the cause of tobacco mosaic disease was either a very small bacterium or a toxin produced by the bacteria?

A. Miller.
B. Meyer.
C. Beijerinick.
D. Iwanowski.

7. The structure of Bacteriophage T4 is BEST described as an arrangement of

A. proteins surrounding a chromosome made of DNA.
B. proteins surrounding a chromosome made of RNA.
C. chromosomes made of DNA surrounding a core of proteins.
D. chromosomes made of RNA surrounding a core of proteins.

8. Viral specificity, the fact that a given type of virus can only affect one kind of host cell, is

A. because of toxins produced by non-host cells.
B. a result of the matching of chemical structures.
C. an indication of their relative strength or weakness.
D. nature’s way of ensuring a wide distribution of viruses.

9. A “phage” (short for bacteriophage) is a type of

A. bacterial cell.
B. virus that invades bacteria cells.
C. cell that is prone to bacterial infections.
D. bacteria that is prone to viral infections.

10. E. coli lives in

A. water.
B. bacteria.
C. blood cells.
D. intestines of mammals.

11. Which of the following sequences BEST describes the lytic cycle?

A. Infection — replication — self-assembly — lysis.
B. Replication — infection — self-assembly — lysis.
C. Lysis — replication — self-assembly — infection.
D. Lysis — self-assembly — infection — replication.

12. A lysogenic cycle differs from a lytic cycle in several ways. Which of these is NOT one of them?

A. The cycle includes a period of “dormancy.”
B. The host cell doesn’t burst open, it just eventually dies.
C. The viral chromosome joins the host cell’s genetic material.
D. The genetic material of the virus is produced by the host cell.

13. A prophage is BEST described as

A. active viral genetic material.
B. dormant viral genetic material.
C. active bacterial genetic material.
D. dormant bacterial genetic material.

14. The genetic material of a retrovirus will organize the synthesis of

A. DNA from its RNA structure.
B. DNA from its DNA structure.
C. RNA from its RNA structure.
D. RNA from its DNA structure.

15. Retroviruses are significant in studies of human diseases because they inject

A. cancer-causing genes.
B. cancer-preventing genes.
C. genetic material that produces cancer-causing genes.
D. genetic material that produces cancer-preventing genes.

16. RNA differs from DNA in all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one?

A. RNA contains uracil, where DNA doesn’t contain uracil.
B. RNA is single stranded, where DNA is double stranded.
C. RNA contains ribose, where DNA contains deoxyribose.
D. RNA is not normally found in human cells, where DNA is.

17. A pathogen is BEST described as a

A. toxic chemical.
B. virus or bacterium.
C. carrier of a disease.
D. disease-causing microbe.

18. Certain types of white blood cells release proteins that clump together foreign cells. What are these proteins called?

A. Antibiotics.
B. Antibodies.
C. Pathogens.
D. Interferons.

19. Interleukins, proteins released by certain white blood cells, function to

A. absorb pathogens in the blood stream.
B. activate other white blood cells during an infection.
C. deactivate the immune system after an infection has passed.
D. warn body cells that there are pathogens in the blood stream.

20. Which of the following is typical of passive immunity?

A. It is relatively short-lived.
B. A person makes their own antibodies.
C. It comes and goes depending on a person’s health.
D. It can be induced by injecting a weakened pathogen.

Unit E — Monerans

1. Which of the following structures would NOT be found in a bacterial cell?

A. Ribosome.
B. Lysosome.
C. Chromosome.
D. Cell membrane.

2. What is the function of the surface chemicals on bacterial cells called pili?

A. Sensory.
B. Defense.
C. Movement.
D. Attachment.

3. Which of the following is MOST characteristic of eubacteria?

A. Anaerobic.
B. Common and abundant.
C. Live in harsh environments.
D. Uncommon with simple characteristics.

4. What shape is a bacillus bacterium?

A. Spiral.
B. Elongate.
C. Spherical.
D. Polyhedral.

5. Organisms that generally use oxygen, but can survive without it are called

A. obligate aerobes.
B. facultative aerobes.
C. obligate anaerobes.
D. facultative anaerobes.

6. Which of the following is a correct match?

A. Aerobic — plant cells — alcohol.
B. Aerobic — animal cells — alcohol.
C. Anaerobic — plant cells — lactic acid.
D. Anaerobic — animal cells — lactic acid.

7. A bacterium that makes its food using energy from chemicals found in its environment is termed a

A. photosynthetic autotroph.
B. chemosynthetic autotroph.
C. photosynthetic heterotroph.
D. chemosynthetic heterotroph.

8. During binary fission, bacteria will

A. divide by mitosis and double their number.
B. produce gametes that fuse to form a zygote.
C. divide by meiosis and quadruple their number.
D. combine, exchange genetic material, and then divide.

9. In one hour, given ideal growing conditions, a small colony of 10 cells could grow to include

A. 13 cells.
B. 40 cells.
C. 80 cells.
D. Hundreds of cells.

10. The following steps occur during conjugation. What is the correct sequence of these steps?

1. DNA replication
2. genetic recombination
3. genetic transfer between cells

A. 1, 3, 2.
B. 2, 3, 1.
C. 3, 1, 2.
D. 1, 2, 3.

11. Which of the following most accurately applies to endospore production?

A. Sexual; during poor growing conditions.
B. Sexual; during good growing conditions.
C. Asexual; during poor growing conditions.
D. Asexual; during good growing conditions.

12. Agar, a common laboratory food source for bacteria, is prepared from

A. fruit.
B. seaweed.
C. grain crops.
D. animal tissues.

13. Macroscopically, bacteria colonies can be distinguished from each other by all of the following EXCEPT ONE. Which one?

A. Color.
B. Sheen.
C. Cell shape.
D. Surface texture.

14. Bacterial cells are called gram positive if their cell walls containing

A. lipids absorb safranine.
B. lipids absorb crystal violet.
C. carbohydrates absorb safranine.
D. carbohydrates absorb crystal violet.

15. Which procedure is LEAST likely to be included in a list of sterile techniques?

A. Using disinfectants.
B. Avoiding direct contact.
C. Maintaining a biological control.
D. Heating equipment to sterilize it.

16. An antiseptic is most correctly used to kill bacteria that

A. are in food.
B. may be found in a cut.
C. can be found internally.
D. are on non-living surfaces.

17. Bacterial activity can result in all of the following EXCEPT ONE. Which one?

A. Oil metabolism.
B. Food production.
C. Protein digestion.
D. Oxygen production.

18. Significant use of biotechnology does NOT currently include the production of

A. pathogens.
B. disinfectants.
C. protein hormones.
D. genetically altered food.

19. Which combination is MOST correct?

A. Parasite — E. coli — intestines.
B. Symbiont — E. coli — stomach.
C. Pathogen — H. pylori — stomach.
D. Decomposer — H. pylori — intestines.

20. Nitrifying bacteria convert

A. N2 into NH3.
B. N2 into NO3-1.
C. NO3-1 into N2.
D. NH3 into NO3-1.

Unit F — Protists

1. Most unicellular organisms that have a nucleus would be

A. eukaryotic and have cilia.
B. prokaryotic and have ribosomes.
C. prokaryotic and have chlorophyll.
D. eukaryotic and have mitochondria.

2. Which of the following is mismatched?

A. Digestive — protist-like.
B. Ingestive — animal-like.
C. Absorptive — fungus-like.
D. Photosynthetic — plant-like.

3. Which is the BEST description of plankton?

A. Floating plants.
B. Microscopic aquatic organisms.
C. Marine photosynthetic organisms without roots.
D. Floating organisms that are at the mercy of the currents.

4. What feature of a paramecium is used to classify it into its phylum?

A. Cilia.
B. Oral groove.
C. Food vacuole.
D. Contractile vacuole.

5. Which of the following is the BEST description of the movement of a paramecium?

A. Gliding.
B. Floating.
C. Spiraling.
D. Crawling.

6. What happens to a food vacuole once it is formed?

A. It leaves via the gullet.
B. It fuses with a lysosome.
C. It becomes a contractile vacuole.
D. It becomes attached to the oral groove.

7. What phylum does an ameba belong to?

A. Phylum Ciliphora.
B. Phylum Sarcodina.
C. Phylum Pyrrophyta.
D. Phylum Zoomastigina.

8. Which of the following BEST describes the functions of pseudopodia?

A. Ingestion and digestion.
B. Movement and ingestion.
C. Reproduction and ingestion.
D. Movement and reproduction.

9. Conjugation is considered to be

A. sexual because new genetic combinations are produced.
B. asexual because no new genetic combinations are produced.
C. sexual because it requires a male and female of the same species.
D. asexual because organisms can conduct conjugation independently.

10. Which of the following is a correct description of reproduction by ameba?

A. sexually when conditions are poor.
B. sexually when conditions are good.
C. asexually when conditions are poor.
D. by forming cysts when conditions are good.

11. During the Plasmodium life cycle, where do the sporozoans mature?

A. Liver cells.
B. Red blood cells.
C. Human blood stream.
D. Mosquito salivary glands.

12. Which phylum of protists is LEAST likely to have flagella?

A. Phylum Sarcodina.
B. Phylum Pyrrophyta.
C. Phylum Zoomastigina.
D. Phylum Euglenophyta.

13. When light shines on water containing Euglena, the Euglena will most likely swim

A. towards it using their flagella.
B. away from it using their flagella.
C. towards it by eugleoid movement.
D. away from it by euglenoid movement.

14. Rapid reproduction by photosynthetic protists producing “blooms” may also cause significant

A. depletion of both CO2 and O2.
B. production of both CO2 and O2.
C. depletion of CO2 and production of O2.
D. depletion of O2 and production of CO2.

15. Red tide is poisonous because the

A. water contains toxins produced by protists.
B. shellfish accumulate toxins produced by the protists.
C. protists are dying at a high rate polluting the ocean shores.
D. shellfish are dying at a high rate polluting the ocean shores.

16. Into which phylum are diatoms classified?

A. Phylum Pyrrophyta.
B. Phylum Chrysophyta.
C. Phylum Euglenophyta.
D. Phylum Acrasiomycota.

17. Which phylum of protists is NOT polymorphic?

A. Phylum Sporozoa.
B. Phylum Pyrrophyta.
C. Phylum Myxomycota.
D. Phylum Acrasiomycota.

18. What causes acrasiomycotes to develop into spore-producing structures?

A. Attraction to cAMP, which is released in poor feeding conditions.
B. Attraction to cAMP, which is released in good feeding conditions.
C. Repulsion from cAMP, which is released in poor feeding conditions.
D. Repulsion from cAMP, which is released in good feeding conditions.

19. Which pathogen and disease is mismatched?

A. Gonyaulax — red tide.
B. Entameba — dysentry.
C. Giardia — beaver fever.
D. Trypanosome — malaria.

20. Which vector (carrier) and pathogen are mismatched?

A. Mosquito — malaria.
B. Fly — Chagas disease.
C. Fly — sleeping sickness.
D. Mosquito — amebic dystentry.

Unit G — Fungi

1. When a fungal spore germinates and continues to grow, it grows from a

A. tip and forms a strand called a hypha.
B. base and forms a strand called a hypha.
C. tip and forms a strand called a mycelium.
D. base and forms a strand called a mycelium.

2. Which of the following is the BEST description of the role of a substrate in relation to a fungus?

A. Defense.
B. Camouflage.
C. Reproduction.
D. Source of nutrients.

3. Hyphae that exhibit positive chemotaxis will grow

A. towards each other for reproductive purposes.
B. towards each other to share a rich food source.
C. away from each other to ensure distribution of spores.
D. away from each other to avoid the rapid depletion of nutrients in one area.

4. A hyphal strand that is termed coenocytic usually

A. has nuclei and cross walls.
B. lacks nuclei and crosswalls.
C. lacks nuclei, but has cross walls.
D. has nuclei, but lacks cross walls.

5. Which phylum does a puffball belong to?

A. Phylum Oomycetes.
B. Phylum Ascomycetes.
C. Phylum Zygomycetes.
D. Phylum Basidiomycetes.

6. Which phylum does Rhizopus stolonifer belong to?

A. Phylum Oomycetes.
B. Phylum Ascomycetes.
C. Phylum Zygomycetes.
D. Phylum Basidiomycetes.

7. Which phylum produces an N + N secondary mycelium?

A. Phylum Oomycetes.
B. Phylum Ascomycetes.
C. Phylum Zygomycetes.
D. Phylum Basidiomycetes.

8. Which of the following MOST ACCURATELY describes the production of basidiospores?

A. Singulary.
B. In clusters of four.
C. In clusters of eight.
D. Hundreds at a time.

9. Which of the following types of spores is produced asexually?

A. Ascospores.
B. Zygospores.
C. Basidiospores.
D. Conidiospores.

10. A specialized hyphal strand that runs horizontal to the substrate is called a

A. stolon.
B. rhizoid.
C. mycelium.
D. sporangiophore.

11. Fungal rhizoids have the dual purposes of

A. anchoring and absorbing nutrients.
B. asexual reproduction and anchoring.
C. spreading out the fungus and absorbing nutrients.
D. asexual reproduction and spreading out the fungus.

12. Which phylum of fungi has cellulose cell walls?

A. Phylum Oomycetes.
B. Phylum Ascomycetes.
C. Phylum Zygomycetes.
D. Phylum Basiodiomycetes.

13. The hyphae of egg fungi are

A. N and coenocytic.
B. 2N and coenocytic.
C. N and acoenocytic.
D. 2N and acoenocytic.

14. Ringworm and athlete’s foot are fungal diseases caused by members of which phylum?

A. Phylum Oomycetes.
B. Phylum Ascomycetes.
C. Phylum Zygomycetes.
D. Phylum Deuteromycetes.

15. What is the major characteristic that unifies Phylum Deuteromycetes?

A. A lack of known sexual reproductive structures.
B. A lack of known asexual reproductive structures.
C. Coenocytic hyphae with one nucleus in each cell.
D. Acoenocytic hyphae with one nucleus in each cell.

16. Lichen could NOT be symbiotic relationships between fungi and

A. plants.
B. protists.
C. animals.
D. monerans.

17. Why are lichens considered a pioneer organism?

A. They can be found almost everywhere.
B. They were one of the first known organisms.
C. They conduct life processes in very simple ways.
D. They are one of the first organisms to grow in disturbed areas.

18. Which of the following is NOT a type of lichen?

A. Foliose — leafy, often found in trees.
B. Fruticose — has upright fruiting bodies.
C. Crustose — crust-like, grows flat on surfaces.
D. Branchiose — branching, forms a network of strands.

19. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic relationship between a fungus and what else?

A. Lichen.
B. Roots of plants.
C. Another fungus.
D. Photosynthetic parts of plants.

20. Which phylum provided the original source of penicillin?

A. Phylum Oomycetes.
B. Phylum Ascomycetes.
C. Phylum Zygomycetes.
D. Phylum Deuteromycetes.

Unit H — Plants That Don't Produce Seeds

1. Which part of an alga is NOT correctly matched with its function?

A. Float — buoyancy.
B. Holdfast — anchorage.
C. Stipe — conduct water.
D. Blade — photsynthesis.

2. Pigment molecules other than chlorophyll-a capture light energy and

A. make products other than glucose.
B. store it to make glucose at another time.
C. pass it along to chlorophyll-a for making glucose.
D. make glucose, but less efficiently than chlorophyll-a.

3. The seaweeds along the shores of the coast of BC are members of

A. Phyla Chlorophyta and Phaeophyta.
B. Phyla Phaeophyta and Rhodophyta.
C. Phyla Chlorophyta and Rhodophyta.
D. Phyla Phaeophyta, Chlorophyta, and Rhodophyta.

4. Green algae is considered to be the most related to land plants because it

A. has vascular tissue, which other algae lack.
B. is equipped with guard cells and stomata to control gas exchange.
C. is predominantly a sporophyte, where other algae are gametophytes.
D. stores glucose as starch, rather than oils or other complex carbohydrates.

5. Which of the following is LEAST useful when distinguishing betweenChlamydomonas and Euglena?

A. Flagella.
B. Eyespots.
C. Pyrenoid body.
D. Contractile proteins.

6. Which of the following ideas does NOT support the notion that Volvox is a multicellular colony?

A. It has simple tissues and organs.
B. Most of the component cells are all very similar to each other.
C. If broken apart, it can reassemble or replace the missing parts.
D. There is some communication and coordination between the component cells.

7. The holdfasts of Spirogyra are an advantage and a disadvantage because they

A. anchor the plant and absorb chemicals from the soil.
B. anchor the plant and make it an easier target for herbivores.
C. enable it to absorb chemicals from the soil, which may to toxic to its growth.
D. enable it to grow taller increasing the possibility of breaking the filamentous structure.

8. Which of the following is TRUE about alternation of generations?

A. sporophytes produce spores that grow into gametophytes, which produce gametes.
B. sporophytes produce gametes that grow into gametophytes, which produce spores.
C. sporophytes produce spores that grow into other sporophytes, which produce gametes.
D. gametophytes produce gametes that grow into other gametophytes, which produce spores.

9. Ulva is biologically significant because

A. it is eaten as dulce.
B. it can grow on land and in the water.
C. it is harvested for its agar-producing abilities.
D. it displays the same kind of life cycle as moss.

10. Which of the following is LEAST problematic for moss growing on land?

A. Drying out in the sun.
B. Getting soaked in the rain.
C. Obtaining water through its roots.
D. Obtaining enough light for photosynthesis.

11. To which phylum does moss belong?

A. Phylum Bryophyta.
B. Phylum Phaeophyta.
C. Phylum Chlorophyta.
D. Phylum Tracheophyta.

12. Which of the following most correctly identifies the role of guard cells?

A. Open to let CO2 in and O2 and H2O out.
B. Open to let O2 in and CO2 and H2O out.
C. Open to let CO2 and H2O in and O2 out.
D. Open to let O2 and H2O in and CO2 out.

13. Select the TRUE statement from among the following statements about moss.

A. The sporophyte is photosynthetic, but the gametophyte is not.
B. The gametophyte is photosynthetic, but the sporophyte is not.
C. Both the gametophyte and the sporophyte are photosynthetic.
D. Neither the sporophyte not the gametophyte is photosynthetic.

14. At what stage in the moss life cycle does meiosis occur?

A. In the spore capsule.
B. In spores before they germinate.
C. In the gametophytes for the production of gametes.
D. In the top of a female gametophyte, resulting in the growth of the sporophyte.

15. Which of the following is present in ferns but not present in moss?

A. Vascular tissue.
B. Guard cells and stomata.
C. Specialized structures to produce spores.
D. Specialized structures to produce gametes.

16. Which of the following most correctly identifies the roles of vascular tissues?

A. Xylem conducts H2O and dissolved minerals up to the leaves, where phloem transports the products of photosynthesis down a stem.
B. Phloem conducts H2O and dissolved minerals up to the leaves, where xylem transports the products of photosynthesis down a stem.
C. Xylem conducts H2O and dissolved minerals up to the leaves, where phloem transports the products of photosynthesis away from the leaves.
D. Phloem conducts H2O and dissolved minerals up to the leaves, where xylem transports the products of photosynthesis away from the leaves.

17. A fiddlehead is an immature

A. sporophyte frond.
B. gametophyte frond.
C. sporophyte prothallium.
D. gametophyts prothallium.

18. Sori are a specialization found on

A. fronds for the production of spores.
B. fronds for the production of gametes.
C. gametophytes for the production of spores.
D. gametophytes for the production of spores.

19. Which is the most logical sequence of plants during succession on land?

A. Moss — grass — shrubs — trees.
B. Ferns — grass — shrubs — trees.
C. Algae — moss — grass — shrubs.
D. Lichen — trees — logs — decomposers.

20. Of which phylum is agar a derivative?

A. Phylum Bryophyta.
B. Phylum Phaeophyta.
C. Phylum Rhodophyta.
D. Phylum Chlorophyta.

Unit I — Plants That Produce Seeds

1. Which of these is the MOST ACCURATE difference between gymnosperms and angiosperms?

A. Angiosperms can have broad, flat leaves; gymnosperms never do.
B. Gymnosperms produce cones for reproduction; angiosperms don’t.
C. Angiosperms produce flowers for reproduction; gymnosperms don’t.
D. Gymnosperms have leaves that are reduced in size, forming needles; angiosperms don’t.

2. Which of the following plants produces a seed with only one cotyledon?

A. Pea.
B. Corn.
C. Peanut.
D. Sunflower.

3. Which of the following is the BEST description of a tissue?

A. Part of an organ.
B. A set of cells that function together.
C. A cluster of cells all in the same place.
D. A set of identical cells that have a unified function.

4. The tissue type in a plant that is capable of cell division is called

A. parenchyma.
B. collenchyma.
C. meristematic.
D. sclerenchyma.

5. Where on a plant would one look to find an apex?

A. In a flower.
B. Along the stem.
C. Under the leaves.
D. At the tip of a branch.

6. In which growing conditions would you find xerophytes, hydrophytes, and halophytes (respectively)?

A. Mineral-rich, aquatic, dry.
B. Aquatic, dry, mineral-rich.
C. Dry, aquatic, mineral-rich.
D. Dry, mineral-rich, aquatic.

7. A boring tool is used to drill a hole into a tree. Which sequence of tissues would it encounter?

A. Phloem — xylem — vascular cambium.
B. Phloem — vascular cambium — xylem.
C. Xylem — vascular cambium — phloem.
D. Xylem — phloem — vascular cambium.

8. What accounts for the movement of water into a root hair and on to the xylem?

A. The pressure exerted on the roots by the surrounding soil.
B. Diffusion due to the difference in concentration of minerals.
C. Osmosis due to the osmotic pressure created by the surrounding ground.
D. The active transport of minerals into the root tissues creating osmotic pressure.

9. Which of the following is the BEST description of the structure and function of the Casparian strip?

A. A set of cells that allows water into the xylem from the root hairs.
B. A waxy layer around the xylem that prevents water from leaving once it is there.
C. A protein-rich layer that enzymatically controls water movement in a vascular bundle.
D. A specialized tissue that conducts water in the xylem of roots to the xylem above the ground.

10. Under which conditions would the chance of transpiration be the greatest?

A. Hot and dry.
B. Cold and dry.
C. Hot and humid.
D. Cold and humid.

11. The dark lines forming the annular rings of a tree are made out of dense

A. xylem cells that formed in poor growing conditions.
B. xylem cells that formed in good growing conditions.
C. phloem cells that formed in poor growing conditions.
D. phloem cells that formed in good growing conditions.

12. The cones of a gymnosperm that are involved in reproduction during a spring season are a

A. one-year male cone and a one-year female cone.
B. one-year male cone and a three-year female cone.
C. three-year male cone and a one-year female cone.
D. three-year male cone and a three-year female cone.

13. Which of the following is the BEST description of pollen?

A. Multicellular male reproductive structure.
B. Multicellular female reproductive structure.
C. Multinucleated male reproductive structure.
D. Multinucleated female reproductive structure.

14. Select the FALSE statement regarding the fertilization process in angiosperms.

A. A pollen nucleus fertilizes the ovum to produce the embryo.
B. A pollen nucleus causes the ovule to develop and produce fruit.
C. A pollen nucleus fertilizes a polar body to produce the endosperm.
D. A pollen nucleus causes the growth and elongation of the pollen tube.

15. What are the location and function of endosperm?

A. In a flower to attract pollen.
B. In fruit to protect the embryo.
C. In a seed to feed the embryo.
D. Part of pollen required for fertilization.

16. Which of the following statements about flower parts is CORRECT?

A. Sepals are photosynthetic.
B. The female parts surround the central male part.
C. Pistils are male parts, while stamens are female parts.
D. The style is the source of energy and fragrance for the flower.

17. What features would you expect to find associated with both a maple and an oak leaf?

A. Parallel vein pattern and a petiole.
B. Parallel vein pattern, but no petiole.
C. Branching vein pattern and a petiole.
D. Branching vein pattern, but no petiole.

18. What causes leaves to change color and fall from trees?

A. Increased photosynthesis coupled with a build-up of cells in the petiole.
B. Decreased photosynthesis coupled with a build-up of cells in the petiole.
C. Increased photosynthesis coupled with a deterioration of the cells in the petiole.
D. Decreased photosynthesis coupled with a deterioration of the cells in the petiole.

19. What is the function of a cotyledon?

A. Store water absorbed by root hairs to use later, when water is less available.
B. Facilitate gas exchange for both photosynthesis and respiration until stomata develop.
C. Promote the growth of roots in a downward direction and the growth of shoots upwards.
D. Provide nutrients to a plant embryo until it can conduct enough photosynthesis to make its own.

20. Which of the following describes a monocotyledon?

A. Six petals per flower with parallel veins in leaves.
B. Six petals per flower with branching veins in leaves.
C. Twelve petals per flower with parallel veins in leaves.
D. Twelve petals per flower with branching veins in leaves.

Unit J — Simple Invertebrates

1. Which of the following combinations of organisms contains only radially symmetrical animals?

A. Jellyfish, sponges, and roundworms.
B. Roundworms, hydra, and sea anemones.
C. Sponges, jellyfish, and Portuguese men-o-war.
D. Portuguese men-o-war, roundworms, and flukes.

2. Cephalization MOST ACCURATELY refers to the development of

A. a brain.
B. a head.
C. a scolex.
D. an anterior end.

3. Which pattern of digestive system allows for the greatest organ development?

A. Sac-like pattern.
B. Tube-like system.
C. Gastrovascular cavity.
D. Intracellular digestion by lysosome activity.

4. Which of the following combinations of organisms contains only sessile animals?

A. Flukes and tapeworms.
B. Sponges, hydras, and sea anemones.
C. Jellyfishes, planaria worms, and tapeworms.
D. Flukes, tapeworms, and planaria worms.

5. Animals are diploid (2N) and produce gametes that are haploid (N). This statement is

A. never true.
B. usually true.
C. always true.
D. occasionally true.

6. Sessile aquatic animals are more likely to be

A. radially symmetrical, have separate sexes and reproduce by mating.
B. radially symmetrical, hermaphroditic and reproduce by broadcasting.
C. bilaterally symmetrical, have separate sexes and reproduce by mating.
D. bilaterally symmetrical, hermaphroditic and reproduce by broadcasting.

7. Which of the following correctly describes the water flow through a sponge?

A. In and out through the osculum.
B. In and out through the porocytes.
C. In through porocytes and out the osculum.
D. In through the osculum and out through the porocytes.

8. Which of the following is the most complete list of functions that occur by diffusion in a jellyfish?

A. Excretion and circulation.
B. Respiration and excretion.
C. Respiration and circulation.
D. Respiration, excretion, circulation.

9. Which of the following is true about stinging cells and collar cells?

A. They are homologous structures associated with the digestive system.
B. Stinging cells are specializations of the ectoderm; collar cells are specializations of endoderm.
C. Collar cells are specializations of the ectoderm; stinging cells are specializations of endoderm.
D. Collar cells are members of colonies of cells; stinging cells are specializations of the ectoderm.

10. What are the functions of a gastrovascular cavity?

A. Digestion and excretion only.
B. Excretion and circulation only.
C. Digestion and circulation only.
D. Digestion, excretion and, circulation.

11. Which of the following animals has a nerve net?

A. Sponge.
B. Jellyfish.
C. Planaria.
D. Tapeworm.

12. Which of the following animals is a member of Class Scyphozoa?

A. Hydra.
B. Jellyfish.
C. Planaria.
D. Sea anemone.

13. Which of the following correctly describes the tissue layers in the animals indicated?

A. Jellyfish — 2 layers; tapeworm —3 layers; round worm — 3 layers.
B. Jellyfish — 2 layers; tapeworm — 3 layers; round worm — 4 layers.
C. Jellyfish — 2 layers; tapeworm — 2 layers; round worm — 3 layers.
D. Jellyfish — 3 layers; tapeworm — 3 layers; round worm — 4 layers.

14. What system do flame cells and nephridiopores belong to?

A. Excretory system of planaria.
B. Circulatory system of planaria.
C. Excretory system of roundworms.
D. Circulatory system of roundworms.

15. What is the advantage to a parasitic worm of having multiple hosts during its life cycle?

A. Finding a mate.
B. Distributing their young.
C. Infecting a wider range of animals.
D. Sampling a wider range of nutrient sources.

16. A parasitic worm that has a dormant stage in a mammal can usually be found in a

A. cyst.
B. snail.
C. scolex.
D. proglottid.

17. A human with a tapeworm most likely got it by consuming

A. raw snails.
B. unsanitary water.
C. poorly cooked meat.
D. unwashed leafy vegetables.

18. If a pin were poked into a nematode from the outside into the intestine, what would it pass through?

A. Ectoderm, mesoderm, pseudocoelom, then endoderm.
B. Ectoderm, pseudocoelom, mesoderm, then endoderm.
C. Ectoderm, mesoderm, pseudocoelom, mesoderm, then endoderm.
D. Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm, pseudocoelom, mesoderm, then endoderm.

19. Which of the following best describes the movement of a nematode?

A. Crawling.
B. Swimming.
C. Ciliated gliding.
D. Whipping back and forth.

20. The development of a coelom is coupled with the earliest specialization of a/an

A. nervous system.
B. excretory system.
C. circulatory system.
D. respiratory system.

it K — Higher Invertebrates

1. The reproductive structures of an earthworm are located

A. under the clitellum.
B. mid-way along the length of the worm.
C. closer to the anterior end of the worm.
D. closer to the posterior end of the worm.

2. The setae of the earthworm function BEST for

A. traction.
B. feeling.
C. excretion.
D. subdividing the coelom.

3. In order to elongate, an earthworm would have to

A. contract its circular muscles, while relaxing its longitudinal muscles.
B. relax its circular muscles, while contracting its longitudinal muscles.
C. contract both its circular and longitudinal muscles.
D. relax both its circular and longitudinal muscles.

4. Of the following, which is the BEST description of detritus?

A. Fungus.
B. Fertilizer.
C. Soil debris.
D. Undigested wastes.

5. The aortic arches of an earthworm are located around the

A. pharynx.
B. intestine.
C. esophagus.
D. ventral nerve cord.

6. Which of the following pairs in mismatched?

A. Gastropod — mantle cavity.
B. Bivalvia — water vascular system.
C. Oligochaete — segments.
D. Hirudinea — suckers.

7. Which pair most correctly matches structures with their functions?

A. Crop — storage; gizzard — grinding.
B. Crop — grinding; gizzard — storage.
C. Crop — chemical digestion; gizzard — physical digestion.
D. Crop — physical digestion; gizzard — chemical digestion.

8. Earthworms are MOST correctly described as

A. free-living.
B. parasitic.
C. carnivores.
D. herbivores.

9. The annelid feature that “relates” best to mollusks is the

A. degree of specialization of the nervous system.
B. lack of development of an excretory system.
C. development of ciliated larvae.
D. extent to which their bodies are segmented.

10. The correct sequence of the parts of an earthworm’s digestive system is

A. pharynx, crop, gizzard, intestine, anus.
B. pharynx, gizzard, crop, intestine, anus.
C. esophagus, gizzard, crop, intestine, anus.
D. esophagus, crop, gizzard, stomach, intestine.

11. The lifestyle of a polychaete is best described as

A. predator.
B. prey.
C. producer.
D. parasite.

12. Which of the following systems is likely the MOST developed in a leech?

A. Excretory.
B. Reproductive.
C. Digestive.
D. Circulatory.

13. The chemical secreted by a leech is medically significant because it prevents

A. bacterial infection.
B. blood clotting.
C. tissue rejection.
D. skin deterioration.

14. Which of the following sets of features most accurately defines Phylum Mollusca?

A. Marine, soft-bodied, mantle.
B. Soft-bodied, mantle, closed circulatory system.
C. Foot, mantle, soft-bodied.
D. Marine or terrestrial, foot, open circulatory system.

15. Which of the following is LEAST likely a function of the siphon of a clam?

A. Feeding.
B. Excreting.
C. Circulating.
D. Reproducing.

16. A sinus of a clam is MOST correctly described as a chamber where

A. air collects for respiration.
B. blood collects to bathe tissues.
C. muscles for movement are located.
D. reproductive gametes are stored.

17. Which of the following are vestigial structures?

A. Gills of clams.
B. Mantles of slugs.
C. Eyes of octopi.
D. Radulas of snails.

18. Which organism is mismatched with a characteristic “lifestyle”?

A. Clam — filter feeder.
B. Squid — predator.
C. Slug — carnivore.
D. Snail — free-living.

19. Which part of the water vascular system of a sea star is connected directly to a tube foot?

A. Madreporite.
B. Lateral canal.
C. Ring canal.
D. Radial canal.

20. Which system of echinoderms is LEAST specialized?

A. Digestive system.
B. Locomotory.
C. Respiratory.
D. Reproductive.

Unit L — Arthropods

1. Which of the following is the key identifying feature of the arthropods?

A. Body segmentation.
B. Metamorphosis.
C. Exoskeletons.
D. Jointed appendages.

2. The circulatory system of a typical arthropod is best described as

A. open with a ventral pumping vessel.
B. open with a dorsal pumping vessel.
C. closed with a ventral pumping vessel.
D. closed with a dorsal pumping vessel.

3. Centipedes are members of class

A. Chilopoda.
B. Diplopoda.
C. Insecta.
D. Uniramia.

4. Millipedes are known for their

A. single pair of legs per segment and herbivorous lifestyle.
B. single pair of legs per segment and carnivorous lifestyle.
C. double pair of legs per segment and herbivorous lifestyle.
D. double pair of legs per segment and carnivorous lifestyle.

5. The major locomotory structures of an insect are attached to its

A. head.
B. thorax.
C. cephalothorax.
D. abdomen.

6. Which of the following lists a grasshopper’s mouthparts in an anterior to posterior sequence?

A. Labium ¬ mandibles ¬ maxillae ¬ labrum.
B. Labium ¬ maxillae ¬ mandibles ¬ labrum.
C. Labrum ¬ maxillae ¬ mandibles ¬ labium.
D. Labrum ¬ mandibles ¬ maxillae ¬ labium.

7. To which body system do ocelli belong?

A. Excretory.
B. Respiratory.
C. Reproductive.
D. Nervous.

8. Which of the following BEST describes the life cycle of a moth?

A. Egg ¬ nymph ¬ adult.
B. Egg ¬ larva ¬ nymph ¬ adult.
C. Egg ¬ larva ¬ pupa ¬ adult.
D. Egg ¬ pupa ¬ adult.

9. Of the following, the BEST description of the role of Malpighian tubules is to conduct metabolic wastes from

A. tissues to the intestines.
B. tissues to the kidneys.
C. kidneys to the excretory openings.
D. kidneys to the spiracles.

10. Which of the following will not enable one to distinguish gender?

A. Presence of an ovipositor on a grasshopper.
B. Storage sacs on the ends of the pedipalps of a spider.
C. The length of swimerettes on a crayfish.
D. The thickness of the carapace of a crab.

11. Which class of arthropods has branching appendages?

A. Trilobite.
B. Uniramia.
C. Arachnida.
D. Crustacea.

12. A grasshopper’s tracheal tubes are attached to its

A. lungs.
B. spiracles.
C. gills.
D. book lungs.

13. Which system does a green gland of a crayfish belong to?

A. Excretory.
B. Digestive.
C. Reproductive.
D. Circulatory.

14. How many stages are there in complete metamorphosis?

A. Two.
B. Three.
C. Four.
D. Five.

15. What is the function of uropods and a telson?

A. Excretion.
B. Reproduction.
C. Locomotion.
D. Digestion.

16. Spiders obtain oxygen through their

A. gills.
B. cuticles.
C. book lungs.
D. tracheal tubes.

17. The “fangs” of a spider are more technically known as

A. chelicera.
B. pedipalps.
C. chelipeds.
D. carapaces.

18. Insects that transmit diseases are

A. pathogens.
B. parasites.
C. vectors.
D. virulent.

19. Which of the following has a nymph stage in its life cycle?

A. Grasshopper.
B. Moth.
C. Mosquito.
D. Fly.

20. People who enjoy eating lobster are usually eating the muscles of its

A. cephalothorax and chelipeds.
B. carapace and abdomen.
C. telsons and uropods.
D. cheliped and abdomen.

Unit M — Chordates

1. Which of the following correctly expresses the relative placement of a vertebrate’s nerve cord and major blood vessels?

A. Both are dorsal.
B. Both are ventral.
C. The nerve cord is ventral and the blood vessels are dorsal.
D. The nerve cord is dorsal and the blood vessels are ventral.

2. Which of the following is NOT a correct match?

A. Scaly legs — frog.
B. Crop and gizzard — chicken.
C. Boneless — shark.
D. Free-living — lamprey.

3. Which of these features would NOT be found in a trout?

A. Operculum.
B. Swim bladder.
C. Spiral valve.
D. Cloaca.

4. The limbs of a salamander cannot support much weight because they

A. are more like fins than legs.
B. are not attached by bone to the spine.
C. stick out sideways from the body.
D. are weak and largely non-functional.

5. Limbs are attached to the vertebral column as follows:

A. pelvic are on the left; pectoral are on the right.
B. pelvic are on the right; pectoral are on the left.
C. pelvic are anterior; pectoral are posterior.
D. pelvic are posterior; pectoral are anterior.

6. Which of the following animals has a heart with clearly only one ventricle?

A. Salamanders.
B. Alligators.
C. Chickens.
D. Horses.

7. Which of the following BEST describes the skeletal system of the classes of fish?

A. Agnatha — absent; Chondrichthyes — boney; Osteichthyes — cartilaginous.
B. Agnatha — cartilaginous; Chondrichthyes — cartilaginous; Osteichthyes — boney.
C. Agnatha — absent; Chondrichthyes — boney; Osteichthyes — cartilaginous.
D. Agnatha — boney; Chondrichthyes — cartilaginous; Osteichthyes — boney.

8. A cloaca is a common opening for all of the following systems EXCEPT

A. digestive.
B. reproductive.
C. excretory.
D. circulatory.

9. Fat deposits in vertebrates have two main functions. Besides being a long term food supply, they

A. create the appearance of larger size.
B. help maintain body temperature.
C. provide an internal water proofing.
D. remove impurities from the blood.

10. Which system is NOT present in vertebrates?

A. Respiratory.
B. Water vascular.
C. Excretory.
D. Endocrine.

11. An endothermic animal gets its body temperature from

A. the environment.
B. other endothermic animals.
C. ectothermic animals.
D. its own metabolic activity.

12. The most efficient respiratory systems are found among the

A. fish.
B. birds.
C. reptiles.
D. mammals.

13. Which group of chordates typically reproduces using internal fertilization?

A. Turtles, frogs, birds.
B. Bats, salamanders, whales.
C. Snakes, kangaroos, platypuses.
D. Sharks, alligators, anteaters.

14. The lungs of a mammal are located in its

A. alimentary canal.
B. abdominal cavity.
C. cranial cavity.
D. thoracic cavity.

15. What is the main difference between the uterus of a human and the uterus of a rat?

A. Shape.
B. Function.
C. Location in the body.
D. Attachment to internal other organs.

16. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the digestive organs through which material pass in a rat?

A. Mouth, trachea, stomach, small intestine, anus.
B. Mouth, esophagus, crop, gizzard, intestine.
C. Mouth, stomach, rectum, large intestine, anus.
D. Mouth, stomach, small intestine, caecum, large intestine.

17. How do marsupials differ from other mammals?

A. They are the only mammals that have a placenta.
B. They do not have internal fertilization.
C. Their young are born at a much earlier stage of development.
D. They do not have mammary glands with nipples.

18. Which of the following membranes most directly surrounds a developing embryo?

A. Allantoic sac.
B. Amniotic sac.
C. Chorionic sac.
D. Yolk sac.

19. Birds and reptiles share all of the following EXCEPT

A. Amniotic egg.
B. Scales.
C. Lightweight bones.
D. Beaks and claws.

20. A structure present in a rat yet absent in a frog is a

A. lung.
B. diaphragm.
C. kidney.
D. spleen.

Unit N — Ecology

1. Which of the following is an abiotic feature of an environment?

A. Fish.
B. Birds.
C. Trees.
D. Rivers.

2. An organism’s (species’) niche is best described as the set of interactions between the organism and the

A. positive features of its environment.
B. abiotic parts of its environment.
C. abiotic and biotic parts of its environment.
D. positive and negative features of its environment.

3. Which of the following interactions occurs within a single species?

A. Parasitism.
B. Symbiosis.
C. Competition.
D. Predation.

4. Which of the following is descriptive of lichen?

A. Parasitism.
B. Symbiosis.
C. Competition.
D. Predation.

5. Which of the following would increase the size of a population?

A. Increased mortality.
B. Increased emigration.
C. Decreased immigration.
D. Increased natality.

6. A population of 1000 members is changing at the following rates: N = 10%, M = 14%, I = 18%, E = 22%. After one year, the population would be

A. 920.
B. 992.
C. 1008.
D. 1080.

7. Bacteria grown on agar in a Petri dish is an example of

A. carrying capacity.
B. closed population.
C. open population.
D. cyclical changes in population size.

8. When the density of a growing population surpasses the carrying capacity of its environment, the organisms will

A. stop reproducing until the population size degreases significantly.
B. reduce the number of offspring per female in the population.
C. begin to die faster than new ones are produced.
D. go extinct.

9. Cyclical changes in population density exist in an environment that is

A. relatively stable over a long period of time.
B. changing rapidly.
C. undergoing succession.
D. undergoing severe selective pressures.

10. In an energy pyramid, the producers are at the

A. top and there is more energy at each successive level.
B. top and there is less energy at each successive level.
C. bottom and there is more energy at each successive level.
D. bottom and there is less energy at each successive level.

11. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be true about herbivores and carnivores in the same ecosystem?

A. Both are part of the biota of the area.
B. The carnivores could prey on the herbivores.
C. They are both are the same trophic level.
D. The density of both populations undergoes regular fluctuations.

12. Which of the following is the BEST description of carrying capacity?

A. The maximum number of individuals a closed environment will support.
B. The maximum number of individuals a open environment will support.
C. The minimum number of individuals a closed environment will support.
D. The minimum number of individuals a open environment will support.

13. Which sequence is the most likely to occur during succession in a cedar forest?

A. Grasses ¬ deciduous trees ¬ cedar trees.
B. Cedar trees ¬ seedlings ¬ cedar trees.
C. Moss ¬ grasses ¬ deciduous growth.
D. Lichen ¬ shrubs and grasses ¬ trees.

14. A pioneer species is

A. an ancient type of organism.
B. one which has evolved quickly.
C. one which has avoided evolution.
D. one of the first types to grow in a new area.

15. Which kingdom does NOT contain photosynthetic organisms?

A. Plant.
B. Fungus.
C. Protist.
D. Monera (Eubacteria).

16. During photosynthesis, the products are

A. carbon dioxide and water, while the reactants are oxygen and sugar.
B. oxygen and carbon dioxide, while the reactants are sugar and water.
C. water and oxygen, while the reactants are sugar and carbon dioxide.
D. sugar and oxygen, while the reactants are carbon dioxide and water.

17. During cellular respiration, the products are

A. carbon dioxide and water, while the reactants are oxygen and sugar.
B. oxygen and carbon dioxide, while the reactants are sugar and water.
C. water and oxygen, while the reactants are sugar and carbon dioxide.
D. sugar and oxygen, while the reactants are carbon dioxide and water.

18. Organisms use sugar to make an energy-rich molecule called

A. TAP.
B. ATP.
C. PAT.
D. PTA.

19. Every population requires

A. a lack of predation.
B. continuous resources.
C. continuous succession.
D. inverted energy pyramids.

20. Extinction of one species in a stable ecosystem could do all of the following EXCEPT

A. go unnoticed.
B. cause the collapse of the ecosystem.
C. increase the interactions between the remaining species.
D. decrease the interactions between the remaining species.

Unit Test Answers — Biology 11

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